But the energy required to magnetize the coil does change.  This has now been explained to you more than half a dozen times by Verpies and myself.

With regards to an air core coil,regardless of the presents of a magnetic field or not,no more energy is required to magnetize the coil in order to gain a higher force in the presents of a PM.

Time is not a factor in the test,as it is an applied DC current,

...but it is    
This is because when you start applying that "DC current" this current does not rise instantly, and it is during the time when the current rises, that the energy transfer takes place.  Please, please read this carefully.

...and this current may be applied to the coil for as long as you like.

...but during the application of this current not all of the energy carried by it goes into the building of the coil's magnetic field.
After 5τ almost none of it goes to that purpose and almost all of it goes to heating the winding.

The point of the test is to show the force applied against the spring

Force is not energy either.  Integral of force * distance is energy.  However the distance that a given spring is extended indeed is a good representation of potential energy, even if distance is not energy .  ...so I have no qualms about this part of your experiment.

with a set amount of power/electrical energy,what ever you like to call it on the day, flowing into the coil.

That is the point. After 5τ almost none of the electric energy is converted into the coil's magnetic field
Please do not synonimize power/energy with a slash.  They are not the same and it creates confusion for other readers.  Power is a concept that illustrates how quickly energy gets transferred.

So it takes no power to create the magnetic field around the coil?

It takes energy to create the magnetic field around a coil.  How quickly you create it, determines the power.

If you look at my diagram you will see that at 0.69τ (point B) the speed of energy flow (a.k.a. power) into the coil reaches its peak and starts decreasing afterwards, eventually reaching zero power and magnetic energy equal to ½*L*(V/R)², at Tau >> 5

If it dose,then that should be added to your above answer.

No, because I was writing about the final current and the only thing you can tell from the final current is the power of the heater formed by the coil's windings.  You cannot determine the energy transferred to coil's magnetic field from the final current alone.

You absolutely did not give me an experiment that showed a PM doing work. You gave me an experiment showing an electromagnet doing work. It is completely irrelevant if you used a ferrite, a PM , an iron plug or a block of wood. None of those are doing any work.

To your inane and relatively stupid question, there is no answer since the PM is not doing any work, period.

By you arguements I could put a brick in the trunk of may care then measure the car's acceleration and compare it to the same car with two bricks in the trunk. Neither brick is doing a lick of work; it is the engine or the electromagnet in your experiment.

Ok guru,dose it take energy to create a magnetic field<--lets see if you can answer this.

Oh,by the way--the bricks in your car thing. Once the car is moving,the bricks now has stored potential energy. When you stop the car,the bricks would have given back that stored energy in way of inertial force against the car.

the difference is more the car traveling down hill as apposed to up hill.
But before i go any further,we will wait for !self bouncing masses with elasticity! to answer my question.

The question has been answered by myself and two others all with the same explanation. You simply fail to understand gravity, forces and energy.

The question has been answered by myself and two others all with the same explanation. You simply fail to understand gravity, forces and energy.

What two others have said that the energy used to compress the ball for the second bounce is not from the energy used and stored to lift the ball to it's starting height?

Ok guru,dose it take energy to create a magnetic field<--lets see if you can answer this.

Oh,by the way--the bricks in your car thing. Once the car is moving,the bricks now has stored potential energy. When you stop the car,the bricks would have given back that stored energy in way of inertial force against the car.

I and probably the others am tired of your silly games. I'll leave in the capable hands of the power utility who don't find any humour in your nutball ideas.

I'll leave you with these last words. Since you have more than adequately demonstrated you know little about physics, I'm calling your device just another hunk of iron that does nothing but cause problems with the power utility and because you tell us it isn't an over unity device.

What two others have said that the energy used to compress the ball for the second bounce is not from the energy used and stored to lift the ball to it's starting height?

Put on your remedial reading glasses and check the last couple of pages of this thread.

We are not replacing the EM with a PM,we are replacing the ferrite keeper with a PM.

What picowatt was trying to get you to consider is when is work being done.  Let me put it to you this way:  Suppose that we leave the electromagnet on for a week.  How much energy is transferred to the spring after the first minute?  How about the first hour or day?  How do those values compare to the amount of energy that goes into the spring during the first second?