Consider a series string of ideal inductors connected into a loop with a shorting wire. 

With or without mutual inductance?

If you induce a time varying current into the loop, would there not be a measurable voltage drop between the inductors due to the reactance of those inductors? 

If k<1 and the time varying current was caused asymmetrically, e.g. by varying the flux through only one of the inductors, then there would be a measurable voltage across that inductor as it would act as a voltage source in series with the other inductors.

Do you believe you can you induce a current flow in an "ordinary" inductor with its ends shorted together?

Yes, by varying the flux penetrating that inductor.
And since that inductor has resistance now, then the current flow will cause a voltage drop across any two points on it.

Brad, the short answer is that you can always place a voltage source across an ideal inductor even if it has "zero resistance." 

I think you are conflating the series connection of the voltage source and the inductor with the parallel connection of the voltage source to a shorted inductor, as stipulated by Tinman,
Picowatt wrote that you had a different connection in mind earlier in the thread (which I did not read) so the meaning of the word "across" might be at the root of your disagreement with Tinman.

Question 2--see diagram below.

No.

That could be the root of the misunderstanding with Tinman.  When he writes "shorted inductor" he means "shorted by an ideal wire" not "shorted by an ideal voltage source".
I think he does and he is correct. 
The opposite to a shorted inductor is an "open inductor" and such inductor behaves as if it did not exist at all.  This can be seen when an "open inductor" is subjected to varying magnetic flux. i.e from an approaching permanent magnet.
Most real inductors are somewhere in-between - between the "shorted inductor" and "open inductor" ...closer to the shorted, though.

What are you saying exactly?

That an ideal inductor is one that has a short across its terminals? Please clarify your point.

Brad,

I am curious as to why you wish to apply an ideal voltage to a shorted ideal coil in reference to MH's original question? IMO, it really has no bearing. Perhaps this idea stems from the second condition of the question where zero volts is applied for 2 secs!?

In regards to an ideal voltage source not changing, we must qualify the change.  Assume for a moment that I am the creator of an ideal voltage source.  I am free from all known laws to set the voltage level at any magnitude I choose. The magnitude I choose however will not change with any attached load but I am still free to change the magnitude at any given time I wish. The output is still unable to change with any load variation.  This is the ideal voltage source MH used in his question.

partzman

Because an ideal voltage source has no internal resistance,and that is what makes it ideal.
The ideal voltage source is a series/parallel connection,as there is only two components in the circuit. As that ideal voltage source provides the very same link across the inductor as the piece of non resistant wire dose,then as soon as you hook the ideal voltage source across that ideal inductor,you have just shorted(looped) that ideal inductor.

If the voltage was reduced to 0 volts on the ideal voltage source,the current flow would continue through the loop that now exist in the ideal coil.=,as the voltage source has no internal resistance to impede the current flow.

Ask your self this.
When MH turns his voltage source down to a value of 0 volts,will the current flow continue on?
If not,then explain as to why not--what will impede that current flow,when the complete loop from the ideal inductor across the ideal voltage supply has no resistance ?

Who here can draw the complete circuit,along with the resistance values of that circuit?.


Brad

The equivalent circuit model for an ideal inductor is not an inductor with a wire shorting across its ends.

Just because most of the world does it wrong does not mean that we have to.

An energized capacitor can be correctly modeled in an open state, the inductor - just the opposite.

Are you stating that you believe the equivalent circuit for an ideal inductor is an inductor in parallel with (shorted) by an ideal wire?

Yes, with an addendum that it can also be shorted by an ideal voltage source.
I know that SPICE does not draw an inductor this way, but internally it calculates it that way.

Do you also believe that the equivalent circuit for a normal inductor has its wire resistance in parallel with the inductor?

No, I believe that when the parasitic capacitance is disregarded then the real inductor's equivalent circuit has its wire resistance in series with its inductance and that entire circuit is closed by an ideal wire just like with an ideal inductor devoid of resistance.

Yes, the Ohm's law is not applicable to inductors because it totally disregards the reactance of the inductor.
Resistance is only one half of the total Impedance.  It actually is the reason why we have all these words to describe it.

But it is applicable when that ideal inductor is shorted(becomes a continual loop)
Even when a current is flowing through that looped ideal inductor,ohms law states that V=IxR,and as there is no R,then there is no voltage across that looped inductor--as we know.


Brad