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Gravity Block,You are obviously a pretty smart person but you are not seeing the forest for the trees.The only math you need to understand is E=MC2.You will find some shorted coils around magnets if I remember the latest orbo claim correctly. Those mystery magnets are doing compression which produces acceleration.Had Einstein correct labeled his equation it would have been:Mass To Atomic Energy Conversion = MC2All free energy devices use mass as the fuel source and they all use acceleration to convert it into energy. There are lots of ways to produce the acceleration. Pulse compression just happens to be a simple one. See Thane Heins for a better example.

Inductance in a circuit is the analog of mass in a mechanical system.GB

All free energy devices use mass as the fuel source and they all use acceleration to convert it into energy. There are lots of ways to produce the acceleration. Pulse compression just happens to be a simple one. See Thane Heins for a better example.

Inductance in a circuit is the analog of mass in a mechanical system. GB

Elementary my dear Watson. What is your point?

@TinselKoala:Why don't you use the correct formula for a dynamically changing inductance and prove me wrong?Inductance at TDC = 0.961mH. Maximum inductance of coil = 1.0HAssuming the inductance is increasing 39mH from 0.961mH to 1.000H at a RPM that has a rate 5 times faster than "t", compute the following:V = 12R = 961I = 0.01248L = 0.961 - 1.0HAfter you compute the calculations, I'll almost bet they're in close agreement with my calculations.GB

GB,I was only placating you when I stated you were a smart person. It is obvious you have the ability to cut and paste, zero electronics background and took high school math.Inductance in a circuit is an analog to mass in a mechanical model UNTIL you place a shorted coil on the inductor which is what I referenced. Perhaps if you were not trying to hide your lack of knowledge while trying to solve some puzzle you have no clue about, you would have seen that and not made two stupid replies.Furthermore, Joseph Leedskalnin wrapped two shorted coils around an inductor and proved that a magnetic field can be conserved without current flow. So if your statement that an inductor is an analog to mass in a mechanical system is true, then you can explain why there is no friction.Your pedantic understanding of physics and EM is not going to produce a free energy device anymore than your pareidolia driven self delusional math. I told you how and why it works and your replies only prove that you can't fix stupid. You got outsmarted by the empirical science of a man with a sixth grade education well over 50 years ago. Did you find the image of Jesus on a hot pocket? Maybe you can find yourself here:http://listverse.com/2010/01/07/top-10-common-faults-in-human-thought/

You forget--- I have actually built 2 functioning e-Orbos, have explored the effects of which you speak, and have successfully replicated all of Steorn's demonstrated behaviors. I don't need to prove YOU wrong...I have already proven that what Steorn has demonstrated, does not support either their claim or yours.If you think that you are right, go ahead and build a device that will take advantage of your effect. Or explain why, if your effect is really happening, why Steorn's motors don't work.

For one, when a Leedskkalnin "PMH" is charged, then it's charged with 0 inductance because of the two oppositely wound coils cancelling out the inductance in the circuit, thus the current reaches it's maximum value allowed by the resistance almost instantaneously to saturate the core material, such as iron or steel. This is why everybody charges their PMH with a very quick tap of the battery. So, your argument that the inductance in a circuit is an analog to mass in a mechanical model UNTIL you place a shorted coil on the inductor is wrong and is based on false premesis because the PMH is charged with 0 inductance when the two oppositely wound coils are shorted. When the PMH is charged with a keeper on it and then the current is removed, then the magnetization of the material will fall to B_{r} or to the remenance magnetization of the material, which is the magnetization left over after an external field is removed (residual magnetization). When the keeper is removed, then the magnetization will fall to H_{c} or the point of coercivity. This is just the B-H Hysteresis loop of a core material.

This is just the B-H Hysteresis loop of a core material.

I suggest you start watching at 35 minutes of this MIT video, which explains how the PMH works, http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ddU6HBFlvEk In fact, it may do you some good to watch all of MIT video's. It's obvious you have no reasoning skills. No reasoning skills * Any amount of education = 0 understanding and 0 comprehension, so I doubt the videos will help you much.

I've been thinking about using a bifilar coil to charge the toroid with 0 inductance, then disconnect one coil shortly after the beginning of the pulse, then disconnect the other coil at the end of the pulse width.

More self delusion. You can't "charge" an inductor without a magnetic field. That is why it is called an "inductor" dumb ass. A bifilar coil is self inductive and thus self canceling just like your pathetic posts.

That's why I said to disconnect one of the coils shortly after the beginning of the pulse, you dumb ass. After you disconnect one of the coils, then it's no longer acting as a bifilar coil and is no longer self cancelling, you dumb ass. The current is flowing in opposite directions in both coils at it's maximum value allowed by the resistance almost instantaneously because there is no net inductance, you dumb ass. After you disconnect one of the coils, then you'll have a net magnetic field and a net inductance, but the current is already at it's maximum value, you dumb ass. The end result is charging the coil with 0 inductance which allows the current to reach it's maximum value almost instantaneously with a net magnetic field after one of the coils is disconnected, dumb ass.GB

I'm neutral on this one, but that was an impressive reply GB, thanks for staying out of the mud.tak

Apparently you do not know what a bifilar coil is dumb ass.Take a piece of wire, fold it in half and start winding at the fold. That is a bifilar coil and they are typically used to induct electrons off a resonant coil below them dumb ass.A volume of your BS exposed and that was all you had?I noticed you forgot to mention anything about that old amp meter blowing your magical thinking out of the water. How about those clearly visible extra coils embedded in the plastic of the Steorn you can't seem to address? Oh... Dumb ass.

Some bifilars have adjacent coils in which the convolutions are arranged so that the potential difference is magnified (i.e., the current flows in same parallel direction). Others are wound so that the current flows in opposite directions. The magnetic field created by one winding is therefore equal and opposite to that created by the other, resulting in a net magnetic field of zero (i.e., neutralizing any negative effects in the coil). In electrical terms, this means that the self-inductance of the coil is zero.